A. The verse in question says, “For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.” If you read the context, you will see that “he” in the verse refers to God, and “him” refers to Jesus Christ. So, the verse appears to be saying that God made Jesus to be sin for us. There are those who say that this is exactly what Paul is saying here; that, although we may not fully understand it and it may have to remain a mystery to us, we must accept that somehow God actually made Jesus to be sin for us. Others say that the verse merely means that God imputed our sins to Jesus.